UPSC Combined Defense Services Exam CDS 2013

1. Which one among the following has been included as a parameter for the first time under the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), based on Central Pollution Control Board and IIT, Kanpur research, WHO guidelines and European Union limits and practices ?
(A) Sulphur dioxide
(B) Oxides of nitrogen
(C) Ozone
(D) Carbon monoxide

2. Fourth BRICS Summit, held in New Delhi in March 2012, deli-berated on the challenges faced by India for sustainable growth. Which one among the following is not a part of the formulated challenges ?
(A) Improvements required in public sector management
(B) Inclusive growth
(C) Improvements required in physical infrastructure
(D) Development in the agri-cultural sector

3. ONGC Videsh (the State-owned oil and gas company of India) recently (September 2012) signed a definitive agreement with—
(A) Russia (B) Azerbaijan
(C) Iran (D) South Sudan

4. Which one among the following regarding G-20 is not correct ?
(A) A group of developed countries
(B) An integral part of the United Nations
(C) Outside the World Bank and IMF
(D) An offshoot of G-7

5. Which one among the following countries initiated the process of Fourth Wave of Democratic Transition ?
(A) Libya (B) Afghanistan •
(C) Tunisia (D) Morocco

6. Some atheists, skeptics and non-believers called to celebrate ‘December 25’ as Newtonmas Day instead of observing Christmas Day. The reason they propose that—
(A) both Isaac Newton and Jesus Christ were great
(B) Isaac Newton was born on 25th December
(C) ‘Skeptic Society’ was foun¬ded on 25th December
(D) Isaac Newton was a deep believer of Christianity

7. European Union’s Annual Sakharov Prize for Freedom of Thought for 2012 has been won
, by-
(A) Guillermo Farinas from Cuba
(B) Nasrin Sotoudeh and Jafar Panahi from Iran
(C) Ali Farzat from Syria and Mohamed Bouazizi from Tunisia
(D) Asmaa Mahfouz and Ahmed al-Senussi from Egypt and Libya respectively

8. The Rohingya are the minorities of—
(A) South Africa
(B) Canada
(C) Myanmar
(D) Bhutan

9. Consider the following state¬ments :
During the last week of Novem¬ber 2012, Palestinian engineers dug up the tomb of Yasser Arafat. This was done primarily to :
1. place the remains of Yasser Arafat in a mosque com¬pound
2. confirm the prevailing sus-picion that Israel had poisoned him
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Rafael Nadal won the French Open Tennis Title, 2012. He defeated—
(A) Andy Murray
(B) Roger Federer
(C) Novak Djokovic
(D) David Ferrer

11. Which one among the following was added in the year 2012 in the list of World Heritage Sites of the UNESCO ?
(A) Western Ghats
(B) Agra Fort
(C) Ajanta Cavesa
(D) Meenakshi Temple

12. Which one among the following is not a salient feature of the Companies Bill as amended in the year 2012 ?
(A) For spending the amount earmarked for corporate social responsibility, the company shall give preferences to local areas where it operates
(B) Punishment for falsely inducing a person to enter into an agreement with bank or financial institution with a view to obtaining credit facilities
(C) There is no limit in respect of companies in which a person may be appointed as auditor
(D) ‘Independent Directors’ shall be excluded for the purpose of computing ‘one-third of retiring directors’

13. FDI in Multi-Brand Retail Trade (MBRT) in all products is now permitted in India subject to—
1. a ceiling of 51%.
2. minimum amount to be brought in as FDI by the foreign investor is US $ 100 million.
3. at least 50% of the pro-curement of manufactured / processed products should be sourced from ‘small in-dustries’.

4. retail sales locations set up only in cities with a population of more than 10 lacs.
Select the correct condition/ conditions using the code given below :
(A) 1,2, 3 and 4
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4 only

14. Why was Kaushik Basu, the ex- economic advisor to the Prime Minister of India, in news recently ?
He was appointed as—
(A) the President of the IMF
(B) the President of the World Bank
(C) the Economic Advisor of the United Nations
(D) the Chief Economist of the World Bank

15. Who among the following was selected for the prestigious Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development, 2012?
(A) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf
(B) ElaBhatt
(C) Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva
(D) Sheikh Hasina

16. Consider the following state¬ments about Malala Yousufzai:
1. In November 2012, she was awarded with the Bravery Award by the World Peace and Prosperity Foundation
2. The United Nations declared November 10 as ‘Malala Day’ in honour of her con¬tribution in the field of girls’ education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both land 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

17. The President of India on 20th November, 2012 released a commemorative postage stamp on the occasion of Ramgopal Maheswari’s birth centenary year celebration. Which of the follow¬ing statements regarding Ram¬gopal Maheswari is /are correct ?
1. He is regarded as a doyen of journalism in India.
2. He was a trusted aid of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose and helped him in mobilizing the forces of Indian National Army in Kohima.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

18. Mention the odd man out—
(A) DidierDrogba
(B) Oliver Kahn
(C) Lionel Messi
(D) Cristiano Ronaldo

19. Why was Australian cricketer Michael Clarke in news recently ?
(A) He scored three triple hundreds in the year 2012
(B) He broke Sir Don Bradman and Ricky Ponting’s records by scoring four 200 plus runs in test cricket in a calendar year*
(C) He remained not out in his test appearances in the year 2012
(D) He had four double-century partnerships in his last four consecutive test appearances in the year 2012

20. The Government of India has recently made it mandatory for oil marketing companies to blend 5% ethanol with petrol. Which of the following is / are the likely consequence / consequences of the policy ?
1. Lower India’s dependence on fossil oil
2. Reduce fuel import Bill Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

21. Consider the following state¬ments regarding e-courts, laun¬ched recently in India:
1. They will facilitate hearing of cases via video-conferen- cing.
2. They will follow the same procedures that are laid out for the bench for hearing appeals in an open court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

22. Who among the following is the author of the book, Sachin : Born to Bat —The Journey of Cricket’s Ultimate Centurian ?
(A) Khalid AH Ansari
(B) Boria Majumdar
(C) Kiran Nagarkar
(D) Ed Hawkins

23. Who among the following is/are the Indian writer(s) shortlisted for the DSC Prize for South Asiai% Literature for the year 2013 ?
1. Amitabh Ghosh
2. Jeet Thayil
3. Uday Prakash
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 only

24. Consider the following state¬ment :
“Rich countries have largely cheated the developing countries of the 30 billion dollar of funds they had committed to transfer to the poor ones between 2010 and 2012.”
Which one among the following relating to the above statement is not correct ?
(A) The above statement is a report out of Oxfam research
(B) The developed nations only provided one-third of the total funding
(C) Green Peace International stated that it is a ‘false start’ than a ‘fast start’
(D) Oxfam’s research report says that levels of public climate finance are set to fall in the year 2013 compared to past three years

25. Which one among the following statements about Barack Obama is not correct ?
(A) In the year 203.2, he was elected as the President of USA for the second time defeating the Republican candidate Mitt Romney
(B) He is the first African- American President of USA
(C) He is the first Democratic President since Franklin D. Roosevelt to twice win the majority of the popular vote in USA presidential election
(D) He is the only American President who won the Nobel Peace Prize

26. During the last part of November 2012, there was a severe fire accident which took away the lives of more than hundred people in Bangladesh. The accident occurred inside a—
(A) textile factory
(B) jute factory
(C) polythene manufacturing factory
(D) cement factory

27. Who among the following was declared as the immediate future President of China in the 18th National Congress of the Communist Party of China held in November 2012 ?
(A) Zhang Dejiang
(B) Xi Jinping
(C) Liu Yunshan
(D) Li Keqiang

28. Which one among the following statements about Grigori Perelman is not correct ?
(A) He is a genius from Russia
(B) He rejected the offer of professorship in Princeton and Stanford University
(C) He works in the area of Cosmology
(D) He has refused to accept the ‘Fields Medal’ and the ‘Millen¬nium Prize’ recently

29. Nobel Prize in Chemistry for the year 2012 was given for the work on—
(A) G-protein coupled receptors
(B) human stem cell cloning
(C) antimalarial vaccine ,
(D) neurotransmitters

30. ‘Global Dimming’ means—
(A) gradual increase of the temperature of ionosphere
(B) gradual loss of biodiversity hot spots
(C) gradual reduction in the amount of global direct irradi- ance at the earth surface
(D) gradual increase in the melting of ice in polar regions

31. Outstanding historian Eric Hobsbawm who expired on 1st October, 2012, has authored a large number of books. The title of his famous autobiography is—
(A) Bandits
(B) Uncommon People : Resis¬tance, Rebellion and Jazz
(C) The New Century: In Conver-sation with Antonio Polito
(D) Interesting Times : A Twen¬tieth Century Life

32. Which of the following institu¬tions was/were asked by the Government of India to provide official estimates of black
’ (unaccounted) money held by Indians, both in India and abroad ?
1. National Institute of Public Finance and Policy
2. National Council of Applied Economic Research
3. National Institute of Financial Management
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1,2 and 3

33. The concept which tries to ascertain the actual deficit in the revenue account after adjusting for expenditure of capital nature is termed as—
(A) revenue deficit
(B) effective revenue deficit
(C) fiscal deficit
(D) primary deficit

34. Which one among the following programmes has now been restructured as the National Rural Livelihood Mission ?
(A) Swarnajayanti Shahri Rozgar Yojana
(B) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
(C) JanshreeBima Yojana
(D) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana

35. Which of the following are included in the category of direct tax in India ?
1. Corporation Tax
2. Tax on Income
3. Wealth Tax
4. Customs Duty
5. Excise Duty
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1,2, 4 and 5
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 3, 4 and 5

36. Which one among the following is a fixed cost to a manufacturing firm in the short run ?
(A) Insurance on buildings
(B) Overtime payment to workers
(C) Cost of energy
(D) Cost of raw materials

37. The government can influence private sector expenditure by—
1. taxation
2. subsidies
3. macro-economic policies
4. grants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1,2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 and 4 only

38. Which of the following occupa¬tions are included under secon¬dary sector as per the national income accounts ?
1. Manufacturing
2. Construction
3. Gas and water supply
4. Mining and quarrying Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1,2, 3 and 4
(B) 1,2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 and 4 only

39. The sharp depreciation of rupee in the Forex market in the year
2011 was due to—
1. flight to safety by foreign investors
2. meltdown in European markets
3. inflation in emerging market economies
4. lag effect of monetary policy tightening
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1,2, 3 and 4

40. The lower growth of coal pro-duction in India during 2011-
2012 was primarily due to—
1. environmental restrictions
2. non-availability of forestry
3. poor law and order situation
in coal-producing States
4. excessive rainfall in coal¬
mining areas
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below—
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 4 only

41. Human Poverty Index (HPI) developed by UNDP is based on which of the following depriva-
. tions ?
1. Income deprivation
2. Literacy deprivation
3. Social services deprivation
4. Employment deprivation Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1,2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 2 and 4 only
42. In the ‘Gupta age, Varahamihira wrote the famous book, Brihat Samhita. It was a treatise on—
(A) Astronomy
(B) Statecraft
(C) Ayurvedic system of medicine
(D) Economics
43. The highly polished monolithic Ashokan Pillars were carved out of single pieces of a buff- coloured sandstone, usually mined from the quarries of—
(A) Chunar near Mirzapur
(B) Lauriya in Nandangarh
(C) Sarnath near Varanasi
(D) Udayagiri near Bhubane¬shwar
44. Which one among the following statements with regard to the National Security Council (NSC) of India is not correct ?
(A) It is a three-tiered organi¬zation
(B) The Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission is its member
(C) It is the apex body looking exclusively the security concerns of the country
(D) RAW and Intelligence Bureau (India) report to NSC
45. The fortification of Calcutta by the British in 1756 was regarded by the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj- ud-daulah, as—
(A) growth of large-scale British trade
(B) an attack upon his‘sovere¬ignty
(C) insecurity of the British in India
(D) British control over Bengal
46. Between 1309 and 1311, Malik Kafur led two campaigns in South India. The significance of the expeditions lies in it that—
1. they reflected a high degree of boldness and spirit of adventure on the part of the Delhi rulers
2. the invaders returned to Delhi with untold wealth
3. they provided fresh geo-graphical knowledge
4. Ala-ud-din promoted Malik Kafur to the rank of Malik- naib or Vice-Regent of the Empire
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1,2, 3 and 4
47. Ibn Batuta’s work, Rihla, com-pleted in 1355, is—
(A) an autobiography
(B) an account of the Delhi Sultans from Aibek to Ghiyas- ud-din Tughluq
(C) a religious text
(D) an account of trade with Morocco
48. Several socio-political organi-zations were formed in the 19th and 20th Centuries in India. Anjuman – e – Khawatin – e – Islam, founded in the year 1914 was—
(A) All India Muslim Ladies Conference
(B) A radical wing of the All India Muslim League
(C) All India Muslim Students’ Conference
(D) All India Islamic Conference
49. British colonialism in India saw the emergence of new cities. Calcutta, now Kolkata, was one of the first cities. Which of the following villages were amalga-mated to form the city of Calcutta ?
(A) Midnapur, Chittagong,
(B) 24-Parganas, Kalikata,
(C) Sutanuti, Kalikata,
(D) Midnapur, Thakurgaon,
50. What was Ziyarat in the language of the Sufis ?
(A) Pilgrimage to the tombs of Sufi saints for seeking barkat (spiritual grace)
(B) Reciting divine name
(C) Offering free kitchens run on futuh (unasked for charity)
(D) Setting up of auqaf (charitable trusts)
51. Which of the following was/ were not related to Buddha’s life?
1. Kanthaka
2. Alara Kalama
3. Channa
4. Goshala Maskariputra
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1 only (B) 4 only
(C) land 2 (D) 3 and 4
Directions—(Q. 52-59) The
following six items consist of two statements, Statement I and State-ment II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
(A) Both the statements are individually true and State- ment II is the correct expla-nation of Statement I
(B) Both the statements are individually true but State-ment II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
52. Statement I : There was great exodus of Jaina monks under the leadership of Bhadrabahu to the Deccan following severe famine in the Ganga Valley towards the end of Chandragupta’s reign. Statement II Chandragupta Maurya joined the Jaina order as a monk.
53. Statement I : Mahavira initially joined a group of ascetics called Nirgranthas.
Statement II : The sect was founded 200 years earlier by Parsva.
54. Statement I : Lomash Rishi and Sudama caves in the Barabar Hills, modelled on wooden architectural prototypes, are examples of the earliest cave architecture in India.
Statement II : Barabar Hills caves were dedicated by Chandragupta Maurya to Ajivika monks.
55. Statement I : Sculptures of the Gandhara School stylistically are typically linked to the Greeco- Roman and the Parthian art of Iran.
Statement II : The earliest stone Buddha images in the Swat Valley pre-dated the Kushana period which suggests that certain iconographic conventions were already well-established in the pre-Kushana period.
56. Statement I : The Permanent Zamindari Settlement of land created a new class of landlords. Statement II : The new class of landlords became strong political allies of the British and were interested in the continuance of British dominion.
57. Statement I : Chlorine radicals (Cl) initiate the chain reaction for ozone depletion.
Statement II : Gaseous hypo- chlorous acid and chlorine are photolysed by sunlight.
58. Which chemical was an im-portant symbol in our struggle for freedom ?
(A) Glucose
(B) Fertilizer
(C) Medicine
(D) Sodium chloride
59. tWhich one among the following is responsible for the expansion of water in the ocean ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Nitrogen dioxide
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Sulphur dioxide
60. Food cans are coated with tin but not with zinc because—
(A) zinc is costlier than tin
(B) zinc has a higher melting point than tin
(C) zinc is more reactive than tin
(D) tin is more reactive than zinc
61. Which allotropy of carbon is in rigid three-dimensional struc-tures ?
(A) Graphite
(B) Fullerene
(C) Diamond
(D) Carbon black
62. What is the role of positive catalyst in a chemical reaction ?
(A) It increases the rate of reaction
(B) It decreases the rate of reaction
(C) It increases the yield of the products
(D) It provides better purity of the products
63. Why hard water does not give lather with soap ?
(A) Hard water contains Ca and Mg ions which form precipitate with soap
(B) Hard water contains sul-phate and chloride ions which form precipitate
(C) pH of hard water is high •
(D) pH of hard water is less
64. Which one among the following metals is used in fireworks to make a brilliant white light ?
(A) Sodium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Aluminium
(D) Silver
65. Which of the following gases in the atmosphere is /are respons-ible for acid rains ?
1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Oxides of carbon
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 1,2 and 3
66. Which one among the following gases readily combines with the haemoglobin of the blood ?
(A) Methane
(B) Nitrogen dioxide
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Sulphur dioxide
67. In human,-which one among the following, with reference to breathing, is correct ?
(A) During inhalation, dia-phragm relaxes
(B) During exhalation thorax cavity expands
(C) During inhalation, intra-pleural pressure becomes more negative
(D) Unlike inhalation, normal exhalation is an active process
68. Dual-energy X-ray absorp-tiometry (DEXA) is used to measure—
(A) spread of solid tumour
(B) bone density
(C) ulcerous growth in stomach
(D) extent of brain haemorrhage
69. Human blood is a viscous fluid. This viscosity is due to—
(A) proteins in blood
(B) platelets in plasma
(C) sodium in serum
(D) RBC and WBC in blood
70. Cancer is more common in older people because—
(A) their immune systems have degenerated
(B) the supply of certain hor¬mones declines with age
(C) their bodies are unable to adjust to the changing environ¬ment
(D) they have accumulated more mutations
71. What would happen if human blood becomes acidic (low pH) ?
(A) Oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin is increased
(B) Oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin is decreased
(C) RBC count increases
(D) RBC count decreases
72. Which one among the following statements about blood trans¬fusion is correct ?
Blood group B can give blood to—
(A) blood group B and receive from group AB
(B) blood groups B and AB, and receive from group B
(C) blood groups B and AB, and receive from group A
(D) blood group O, and receive from group B
73. * Confirmation of the presence of Higgs boson will justify—
(A) both the standard model and superstring theory
(B) the unification of all the four fundamental forces
(C) the steady-state model of the universe
(D) the mass of the fundamental particles
74. The gastrointestinal hormones namely secretin and chole- cystokinin secreted by duodenal epithelium activate respectively which organs to discharge their secretions ?
(A) Pancreas and gallbladder
(B) Gallbladder and stomach
(C) Pancreas and stomach
(D) Stomach and small intestine
75. Milk is unique in its nutritive value. However, it is a poor source of—
(A) calcium (B) iron
(C) copper (D) sodium
76. Consider the following state¬ments regarding antibiotics:
1. They are used to destroy disease-causing bacteria.
2. They can be applied to the skin, swallowed or injected to fight micro-organisms inside the body.
3. They are effective against disease-causing viruses.
4. The first antibiotic to be discovered was tetracycline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1,2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1 only
77. In terms of magnetic properties, oxygen belongs to—
(A) magnetic materials
(B) ferromagnetic materials
(C) paramagnetic materials
(D) diamagnetic materials
78. Light-emitting diode (LED) converts—
(A) light energy into electrical energy
(B) electrical energy into light energy
(C) thermal energy into light energy
(D) mechanical energy into electrical energy
79. The Celsius temperature is a/an—
(A) relative temperature
(B) absolute temperature
(C) specific temperature
(D) approximate temperature
80. The gas used in a refrigerator is—
(A) cooled down on flowing
(B) heated up on flowing
(C) cooled down when com¬pressed
(D) cooled down when exp ded
81. If two conducting spheres a separately charged and th brought in contact—
(A) the total energy of the t spheres is conserved
(B) the total charge on the t spheres is conserved
(C) both the total energy an the total charge are conserved
(D) the final potential is alwa the mean of the original potenti of the two spheres
82. Which type/types of pen uses use capillary action in addition t gravity for flow of ink ?
(A) Fountain pen
(B) Ballpoint pen only
(C) Gel pen only
(D) Both ballpoint pen and ge pen V
83. Nearly 30% of the solar radiatioii return back to the space without contributing anything to the earth’s surface temperature. This amount of radiation is known as—
(A) black body
(B) tropopause
(C) earth’s albedo
(D) mesopause
84. The crew and passengers of a flying aircraft suffer generally from chronic obstructive pul-monary disease due to the effect of—
(A) solar radiation
(B) ozone concentration
(C) nitrogen oxide
(D) particulate pollutant
85. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :
List-I List-II
(Agent) (Disease)
(a) Arsenic 1. Fluorosis
(b) Fluoride 2. Melanosis
(c) Dust 3. Presbycusis
(d) Noise 4. Silicosis
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 2 4 1 3
%fe. ‘NYicY oi tVie ioWcfwmg state¬ments regarding recycling is/are correct ?
1. Recycling is just the collection and separation of the waste materials.
2. Recycling is the collection and separation of the materials from the waste stream and their subsequent processing to produce a marketable product.
3. Recycling leads to reduction of waste disposal cost.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3
87. Which one among the following Indian rivers originates in Maharashtra and flows through Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh to meet the Bay of Bengal in Andhra coast ?
(A) Mahanadi (B) Cauvery
(C) Krishna (D) Godavari
88. The planetary winds that blow from the subtropical high- pressure belts to the Equator are known as—
(A) westerlies
(B) doldrums
(C) polar winds
(D) trade winds
89. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
(a) Ukai Dam
(b) Bhakra Dam
(c) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
(d) Pandoh Dam
1. Beas 2. Krishna
3. Sutlej 4. Tapi (Tapti)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1

90. Which one among the following is a cold ocean current ?
{K) Canary Current
(B) Brazil Current
(C) Gulf Stream
(D) Kuroshio Current
91. Which parts of the earth’s surface experience least variation in in-coming solar radiation through¬out the year ?
(A) Poles
(B) Equatorial Regions
(C) Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn
(D) Arctic and Antarctic Circles
92. The highest of all spring tides occurs at the time of—
(A) full or new moon in associa-tion with winter solstice
(B) full or new moon in associa-tion with equinox
(C) full or new moon in associa-tion with summer solstice
(D) winter as well as summer solstices
93. Which one among the following is not a cause of generation of
« ocean currents ?
(A) Planetary winds
(B) Variation in ocean water temperature
(C) Revolution of the earth
(D) Shape and configuration of the coastlines
94. Which one among the following statements about the Inter¬national Date Line is not correct ?
(A) The International Date Line is largely based on the 180° meridian
(B) The difference in time bet¬ween the places just either side of the International Date Line is almost one day
(C) The difference in time to the extent of one day on either side of the International Date Line is caused by inclined axis of the earth
(D) The International Date Line mostly passes through the Pacific Ocean
95. If the time of a place located on 165° E meridian is 11 : 00 p. m. on Sunday, what would be the time at the place located on 165° W meridian ?
[&) : 00 p. m. on Sunday
(B) 12 : 00 noon on Sunday
(C) 1 : 00 a. m. on Sunday
(D) 11: 00 p. m. on Saturday
96. Which one among the following is not an igneous rock ?
(A) Granite (B) Basalt
(C) Gabbro (D) Gneiss
97. The Karewas of Kashmir refers to which among the following types of deposits ?
(A) Aeolian and glacial
(B) Fluvial
(C) Lacustrine
(D) Volcanic
98. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :
(a) Kollam (b) Tuticorin
(c) Ongole (d) Nellore
(Location in Map)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 1 3 4 2

99. On which one among the follow¬ing islands does the Negrito tribe called ‘the Onge’ live ?
(A) North Andaman
(B) Little Andaman
(C) Little Nicobar
(D) Great Nicobar
100. Veliconda Hills, which is a part of Eastern Ghats, is situated in—
(A) Odisha
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D) Andhra Pradesh
101. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists : List-I
(Cement Production Centres)
(a) Sikka (b) Bhadrawati
(c) Ranchi (d) Kurnool
List-II (State)
1. Karnataka
2. Jharkhand
3. Gujarat
4. Andhra Pradesh Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 4 2 1 3

102. Consider the following state¬ments :
1. In any nation, human deve-lopment outcomes are a function of economic growth, social policy and poverty reduction measures at the macro-level.
2. The expansion of human development in terms of health and education attain¬ment, reduction of income poverty and economic growth is linked in a syner¬gistic manner.
3. Investment in health and education can enhance human functioning which can eventually alleviate income poverty by improv¬ing employability.
4. Resources generated through income poverty reduction and economic growth can be used to en¬hance human development.
Which of the statements given above are logical and correct ?
(A) l and 2 only
(B) 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3 only

103. Whether India is experiencing inclusive growth in the true sense can be assessed by looking at—
1. the economic growth indica¬tors of the different States of India
2. whether different social groups like the SCs, STs and Minorities are getting exclu¬ded from the development process
3. whether the government’s various flagship program¬mes are reaching the socially excluded
4. State-by-State human deve-lopment profile
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1,3 and 4

104. Besides representation, the Parliament of India is also a deliberative body with diverse functions. Which one among the following is not a function of the Parliament of India ?
(A) Ventilating the grievances of the people
(B) Executing major policy decisions
(C) Holding the government accountable for its actions and expenditure
(D) Amending the Constitution

105. Which one among the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 (1) of the Constitution of India
(B) The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
(C) Punishments can be prescribed by a State legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
(D) The Fundamental Rights can be abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order

106. The Government of India Act, 1919—
1. established a bicameral legislature at the Centre
2. introduced dyarchy in the provincial executive
3. introduced a federal system of government in India Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 2 only

107. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duty of citizens under the Constitution of India ?
(A) To provide friendly coope-ration to the people of the neigh-bouring countries
(B) To visit the monuments of national importance
(C) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
(D) To know more and more about the religions of India

108. Who among the following was not associated with the founda¬tion of the All India Trade Union Congress ?
(A) N.M.Joshi
(B) Lajpat Rai
(C) V.V.Giri
(D) Joseph Baptista

109. India’s Look East Policy was conceived in the early 1990s at a time when India was in the process of adjusting to the post- Cold War watershed changes in the international geostrategic environment. The Look East Policy
1. reflects both historical im-peratives and contemporary compulsion of the post-Cold War new world order
2. seeks to optimize India’s synergies in the extended Asia-Pacific neighbourhood
3. has led to India’s partici-pation in Asia-Pacific forums like ASEAN, East Asia Summit BIMSTEC and other institutions
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2 only

110. In his lectures on nationalism, Rabindranath Tagore argued that—
1. nationalism frees men and women from narrow loyalties and bonds, and connects them to wider and better community of fellowship
2. nationalism will foster a feeling of rootedness and cultural belonging, and put an end to war-mongering
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

111. Several nationalist leaders in India wrote commentaries on the Bhagavad Gita to argue the case for an ethical foundation to Indian nationalism. Who among the following is an exception to it?
(A) Sri Aurobindo
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Rammanohar Lohia

112. Which one among the following Committees of the Parliament of India has no members of the Rajya Sabha ?
(A) Public Accounts Com¬mittee
(B) Estimates Committee
(C) Public Undertakings Com-mittee
(D) Departmentally Related Standing Committee on Finance

113. Which one among the following is not a constitutional body in India ?
(A) Comptroller and Auditor General
(B) National Commissioner Linguistic Minorities
(C) National Commission for Scheduled Castes
(D) National Human Rights Commission

114. Consider the following state¬ments :
1. The anti-defection law bans an elected member from voting against the explicit mandate of his/her party.
2. The anti-defection provi¬sions do not apply if one- third of the members of a party disobey the mandate of the party and constitute themselves as a separate party.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

115. The Constituent Assembly of India convened to prepare the Constitution of India appointed a sub-committee headed by Gopinath Bordoloi. Which of the following recommendations was/were made by the Com¬mittee ?
1. Fifth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Assam) Tribal and Excluded Areas
2. Constitution of District Councils in all autonomous
districts of Assam
3. Sixth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Assam) Tribal and Excluded Areas
4. Demarcation of territories in North-East India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 4

116. How does participatory bud¬geting seek to make the func¬tioning of local governance institutions more transparent and accountable ?
1. By allowing citizens to deli-berate and negotiate over the distribution of public resources
2. By allowing citizens to play a direct role in deciding how and where resources should be spent
3. By allowing historically excluded citizens with access to important decision¬making venues
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1,2 and 3

117. janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) was proposed by the Central Government under the overall umbrella of National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). Which of the following are the objec¬tives of the scheme ?
1. Provision of better diet for pregnant women from BPL families
2. To reduce overall maternal mortality ratio and infant mortality rate
3. To provide cash assistance with antenatal care during the pregnancy period
4. To provide institutional care during delivery and imme¬diate postpartum period in a health centre
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

118. Who amongst the following was put on trial for genocidal war at the United Nations Internati¬onal War Crime Tribunal ?
(A) Augusto Pinochet
(B) Paul Kagame
(C) Slobodan Milosevic
(D) NeWin

119. Which one among the following countries redefined the princ¬iples of Tanchshila’ for the purpose of domestic politics ?
(A) Ghana
(B) China
(C) Indonesia
(D) Sri Lanka

120. The Parliament of India passed the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Law popu¬larly known as PESA Law. Which one among the following statements regarding PESA Law is not correct self-governance in the scheduled areas
(B) PESA dis-empowers Gram Sabhas
(C) PESA protects the interests of the tribals
(D) PESA conducts public hearings to protect inheritance rights of the tribals

Answers with Hints
I. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5.(C)
6. (B) 7. (B)
8. (C) Rohingya People are native of Myanmar but also live in Bangla-desh, Pakistan, Thailand and Malaysia.
9. (B) Seriously ill Yasser Arafat was under treatment in France, where he passed away. His wife had alleged that his demise was a result of giving him poison by Israeli intelligence agency with the help of France.
10. (C) Rafael Nadal won the French Open Tennis Title 2012 and runner-up was Novak Djokovic of Serbia.
II. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (A)
16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (B) 22. (B)
23. (A) The leading international Prize for South Asian literature given to its six shortlisted authors, two Pakistani, one Bangladeshi and Three Indian writers. These are Jamil Ahmad, Tahmima Anam, Amitabh Ghosh, Mohammed Hanif, Uday Prakash, Jeet Thayil.
24. (C) It was stated by Oxfam, not by Green Peace International, while releasing the report.
25. (D) Four American Presidents have won Nobel Peace Prize, these are Woodrow Wilson, Roosevelt, Jimmy Carter, Barack Obama.
26. ^ (A) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (D) 32. (D)
33. (B) This time in budget, the government has used the term ‘Effective Revenue Deficit’ to ascertain the actual deficit in the revenue account after adjusting for capital nature.
34. (B) The Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) under the Ministry of Rural Develop¬ment (GOI) has been restruc¬tured since April 1999 as National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM), now renamed as ‘Aajeevika’ to implement it in a Mission mode in a phased manner for targeted and time bound delivery of results.
35. (A) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (A)
40. (B) 41. (B)
42. (A) Brihat Samhita covers wide ranging subjects of human interest including astrology, planetary movements, ecilipses, rainfall, clauds, architecture, growth of crops and others.
43. .(C)
44. (D) IB and RAW report to Joint Intelligence Committee.
45. (B) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (C)
50. (A) 51. (C) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (C)
55. (B) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (D)
59. (A) Warming of atmosphere due to carbon dioxide causes melting glaciers and polar ice caps and causing ocean water to warm and expand. This melting of ice is responsible for the expansion of water in ocean.
60. (C) Zinc is more reactive than tin, zinc is also reactive with toma-toes, while tin reacts only with powerful acids. Due to highly reactive nature of zinc, it is not used for coating food cans.
61. (C) Carbon atoms in diamond form a rigid three-dimensional structure, bonded to four other carbon atoms.
62. (A) Positive catalyst does not take part in chemical reaction, but it increases the rate of reaction, as
2KC103 Mn°2 > 2 KC1 + 302 Catalyst
63. (A)
64. (B) Magnesium is used to aid white sparks and to improve the overall brilliance of a firework.
65. (A) Sulphur dioxide and oxides of Nitrogen, originating from combustion of coal, oil and natural gas are responsible for acid rain.
2NO + 02 -» 2N02 2N02 + H2O -» HNO2 + HNO3 so2 + H2O — H2SO3
66. (C) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (A) 70. (D)
71. (B) 72. (B)
73. (D) Confirmation of the presence of Higgs-Boson will reveal how the particles acquire mass. The fundamental particles hac initially been massless anc acquired mass as a swimmer get; wet while moving through a pool.
74. (C)
75. (B) So far nutrition is concerned milk is considered as incompa rable. However, it lacks the percentage of iron.
76. (A)
77. (C) Solid and liquid forms o oxgen are paramagnetic.
78. (B) Light-emitting diode (LED) i; a semiconductor diode tha converts electrical energy effici ently- into electromagnetic radia tion at visible and infrarec wavelengths.
79. (B) 80. (C)
81. (C) When two charged sphere are brought in contact, tl|gir tota charge, total mass and tota energy will remain conserved aj per the laws of conservation.
82. (C)
83. (C) Earth’s albedo is defined a the fraction of total light inciden on Earth’s surface which i reflected back into all directions This reflected energy does no contribute anything to Earth ! surface temperature. Value a this albedo is about 30% of sola energy incident on Earth.
84. (D) 85.(C) 86. (B)
87. (C) River Krishna emerges fror Mahabaleshwar (Maharashtra and flows through Karnatak and Andhra Pradesh to Bay a Bengal.
88. (D) The predominantly easterlj winds that blow from the sub tropical high pressure cell towards the equatorial tough.
89. (C) Ukai Dam is located i Gujarat, near Ukai village o; Tapti/Tapi river; whereas Bhakr Dam is on river Sutlej in Punjab Himachal Pradesh; Nagarjun Sagar Dam is on Krishna river i A.P. and PandohDam in Punjab Haryana is on Beas river.
90. (A) Canary current is a co’f current. Flows in betwee Maderia and capeward Island along the western coast of Afria
91. (B) Equator, there is 12 hrs duration of day and night respectively. Hence there will be least variation of incoming solar radiation.
92. (A) Spring tide occures at the time of perihelion (winter solstice) either full or new moon.
93. (C) Revolution of earth is not related with the generation of ocean currents.
94. (C) Difference in time on either side of international date line is related to rising of the SUN in the east; not with the inclined
‘ axis of the earth.
95. (D) There is a difference of 360° longitude in between 165° E and 165° W. The time interval will be 24 hr because at every 15° longitude there is a time diffe-rence of 1 hr.
96. (D) Gneiss is a metamorphic rock. While rest three are Igneous rocks.
97. (A) 98.(C) 99. (A)100. (D)101. (A)
102. (C) 103. (D)104. (C) 105. (B)106. (D)
107. (C) 108.(C)109.(C)
110. (C) The Estimates Committee, constituted for first time in 1950, is a- parliamentary committee consisting of 30 members, elected every year by Lok Sabha amongst its members.
111. (D) 112. (B)113. (D)114. (A)115. (C)
116. (A)
117. (A) Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)- a safe motherhood intervention under the NRHM (National Rural Health Mission), was launched on 12th April, 2005 to promote Institutional delivery among the poor pregnant women. The JSY is a 100% centrally sponsored scheme, focuses on poor pregnant women, maternal care, health facility etc. for states having low Institutional delivery viz., U.P., J&K, Uttarakhand, Bihar, Jhar¬khand, M.P., Chhattisgarh, Assam, Rajasthan and Orisha.
118. (C) 119. (D) 120. (B)
Continued from Page 309
political approaches to under-standing international relations. It is conventional to counterpose realist thinking to idealism. Realism dominated the discipline in the decades following the
Second World War. It claims an intellectual heritage going back to Thucydides, Machiavelli, Hobbes, and Rousseau. Post-war realism was dominated by the writing of E. H. Carr, Hans Morgenthau, and John Herz. A revival under the label neorealism started in the late 1970s led by the work of Kenneth N. Waltz.
43. (B) The Marshall Plan-formally known as the European Recovery Programme was announced by the US Secretary of State George C. Marshall on June 5, 1947. Sixteen European states-Austria, Belgium, Denmark, the Republic of Ireland, France, Greece, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, Switzerland, Sweden, Turkey and the United Kingdom became the beneficiaries of American grants.
44. (B)
45. (A) Neorealism reasserted the i logic of power politics on firmer
foundations, exposing the
partiality of the interdependence view of international relations, and reaffirming the primacy of American power in the inter¬national system. It was much
aided by the onset of the second Cold War in 1979, which caught off balance advocates of inter-dependence and transnationa¬lism, who were still confidently generating expiations premised on the progressive reduncancy of force in international relations and the fragmentation of state power. Increasingly, neorealist and neoliberal thinking merged in pursuit of rational choice theory, sharing an opposition to the rising challenge from cons¬tructivism.
46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (A) 50. (A)
Continued, from Page 314
29. (D)
30. (C) Generally, modification or change in the form or structure of something. Clearly, a very rich conceptual notion, and, not surprisingly, the term finds wide application in various specific domains. Hence, in psycho¬analysis, the altering of a repres¬sed impulse or emotions so that in its disguised form it can be admitted to conciousness.
31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (A)
35. (A) A monocular depth cue based on the geometric fact that as the distance of an object increases, the visual angle that it subtends on the eye of the observer decreases. The familiar railroad tracks receding to a single point in the distance are perhaps the most frequently cited example.
36. (C) A form of memory in which information is stored with ‘mental tags’ about where, when and how it was picked up; i.e. the material in memory concerns fairly sharply circumscribed episodes.
37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (A)
41. (C) Any tissue made up of variously modified elongated cells operating together as a contractile unit. Muscles are made up of muscle cells for contraction, connective tissue for binding and vascular tissue for nourishment. Muscles are gene¬rally differentiated according to structure of the cells and to function.
42. (B) Loosely, the various neuro- physiological processes assumed to take place following the acquisition of new knowledge or the learning of new behaviours. The processes involve temporally graded neural changes that fix or ‘consolidate’ the mental traces rendering them relatively robust and long-lasting. The exact operations in the nervous system that account for consolidation are not known but are hypothesized to involve any of several possible mechanisms. Including (a) Modifications in the ease with which neurotrans-mitters affect neighbouring neurons, (b) Alter¬ations in the amount of parti-cular neurotransmitters in critical neural pathways, and (c) Increases in the number of synaptic connections that are made between neurons.
43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (D)
48. (A) 49. (C) 50. (B)

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